abhijitz Posted November 10, 2015 I maybe overthinking this, but i thought it may be worth to take some expert advice. I had gotten a set of 17s from a 08 YZ250 several months ago. Broke my collar bone and was out of riding for a while. Now wanting to mount them on my 04 YZ250 (as a rain tire set) and 06 WR450 street legal. I know i will need to machine in new "longer" spacers (got the measurements for it), but i have a question on the axle mating the inside collar/sleeve of the hub. If you see the first picture, at the farthest end (floor side) you will see the current spacer. It is stepped and hence sits on the bearing race, thereby making the ID of the spacer 20mm. The axle OD is 20mm. However, as in the first pic, in order to make it 20mm, the wall of the spacer is thicker (so you can see the lip). Which means, when i slide the axle in, there will be a void area (envision a cylindrical sleeve, 2-3 mm of void air surrounding, then an axle through it). The axle will sit only on the spacer OD which sits snug with the bearing. Now, my question is : Is that normal? I actually have a 16.5 front for this YZ and the collar/sleeve all they way is the same ID as the axle. i.e. the axle sits flush inside the sleeve. In this case (with the new wheel), the axle will only sit on the spacer. Should i be even machining in another sleeve/collar for that void area. Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
William1 My Rides (2) Posted November 10, 2015 As long as the internal spacer sits firmly against the inner race of the bearing, and the axle OD is the same as the bearing ID you are fine. 1 Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
abhijitz Posted November 10, 2015 Yes, this is positive. Thank You ! As long as the internal spacer sits firmly against the inner race of the bearing, and the axle OD is the same as the bearing ID you are fine. Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
